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failsafe   United States. Apr 15 2017 00:33. Posts 1007
it seems the limit of x/x would be 1 as x goes to infinity.

but what if we wrote x/y and the limit of both of those to infinity. then 1?

but now x1 in n and x2 in r

finally x1/x2 are we able to do this?

cannot only in r?

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positive positivity 

TalentedTom    Canada. Apr 15 2017 02:24. Posts 20069

x/y as they both approach infinity is undefined
how do we prove =/= 2x or y=/= 0.001x

same applies to x1 and x2 having the same support does not mean they are equal

edit * fuck me meant to say undefined

Our deepest fear is not that we are inadequate. Our deepest fear is that we are powerful beyond measure. It is our light not our darkness that most frightens us and as we let our own lights shine we unconsciously give other people permision to do the sameLast edit: 17/04/2017 02:29

KoeBawlt   Canada. Apr 15 2017 07:35. Posts 363

In all of these you have to be careful about how you specify the limit.

Take x/y for example.

One way to specify them going to infinity is that the distance from (x,y) to the origin goes to infinity (ie x^2 + y^2 is going to infinity). This will lead to a divergent limit. Look at the below graph:

https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=f(x,y)+%3D+x%2Fy

You see how near the x-axis f(x,y) = x/y is really big, but near the y-axis it is close to 0.


You could make x go to infinity first then y and get the limit to be infinity. You could make y go to infinity first then make x go to infinity to get 0. (think what you get when you do the first limit).

Or maybe y goes to infinity like 2x. Then the limit is 1/2.



For the second question similarly you need to specify how it goes to infinity.

Disclaimer Im bad but 

PuertoRican   United States. Apr 15 2017 07:55. Posts 10457


  On April 14 2017 23:33 failsafe wrote:
it seems the limit of x/x would be 1 as x goes to infinity.

but what if we wrote x/y and the limit of both of those to infinity. then 1?

but now x1 in n and x2 in r

finally x1/x2 are we able to do this?

cannot only in r?


Rekrul is a newb 

Joe   Czech Republic. Apr 15 2017 10:31. Posts 5973


  On April 14 2017 23:33 failsafe wrote:
it seems the limit of x/x would be 1 as x goes to infinity.

but what if we wrote x/y and the limit of both of those to infinity. then 1?

but now x1 in n and x2 in r

finally x1/x2 are we able to do this?

cannot only in r?



Whether one function is in R and the other in N is irrelevant for this.

When you have a fraction and the limits of both numerator and denominator are infinity, then you can take the fraction of their derivatives (L'Hopital's rule).

The idea is to compare the rate of growth of the functions. And derivatives tell us the rate of growth of a function.

So for example:
x1 = x (x in N)
x2 = e^x (e^x in R)
then lim x1/x2 = lim x/e^x = lim deriv(x)/deriv(e^x) = lim 1/e^x = 0.

Both functions go to infinity, but denom. goes there strictly faster, thus limit is 0.

there is a light at the end of the tunnel... (but sometimes the tunnel is long and deep as hell) 

failsafe   United States. Apr 15 2017 13:16. Posts 1007


  On April 15 2017 06:35 KoeBawlt wrote:
In all of these you have to be careful about how you specify the limit.

Take x/y for example.

One way to specify them going to infinity is that the distance from (x,y) to the origin goes to infinity (ie x^2 + y^2 is going to infinity). This will lead to a divergent limit. Look at the below graph:

https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=f(x,y)+%3D+x%2Fy

You see how near the x-axis f(x,y) = x/y is really big, but near the y-axis it is close to 0.


You could make x go to infinity first then y and get the limit to be infinity. You could make y go to infinity first then make x go to infinity to get 0. (think what you get when you do the first limit).

Or maybe y goes to infinity like 2x. Then the limit is 1/2.



For the second question similarly you need to specify how it goes to infinity.



yeah, shit dude. wolfram is fucking hacks. my mind is blown.

i met this guy several years ago while i was in a psych ward who explained to me that 1*1 and 1/1 defied math because the functional operators couldn't obtain the result that:

1*1 = 1

and

1/1 = 1

i feel like that must be true after looking at the wolfram graph.

obviously 1 =/= 1

positive positivity 

failsafe   United States. Apr 15 2017 13:19. Posts 1007

i feel like humans are meant to be eaten alive by trees and that my house is going to murder me

positive positivity 

failsafe   United States. Apr 15 2017 13:23. Posts 1007

this seems more and more true. i diligently sprayed my computer desk area with lysol for several days and ultimately ended up paying almost $800 in apartment repair fees. this was after purchasing a herman miller aeron.

positive positivity 

traxamillion   United States. Apr 15 2017 18:47. Posts 10242

1 most definitely equals 1


traxamillion   United States. Apr 15 2017 18:48. Posts 10242

Joe answered your question very well


failsafe   United States. Apr 15 2017 21:56. Posts 1007


  On April 15 2017 17:47 traxamillion wrote:
1 most definitely equals 1



lol, yeah but if we come to the same conclusion for the same reason we'll both lose.

positive positivity 

 



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